“But I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, makes her commit adultery” (Matthew 5:32).
“Whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another commits adultery” (Matthew 19:9).
When the Pharisees asked Jesus about his opinion on divorce, he clarified that marriage is a divine institution and is indivisible. Therefore, divorce was not permitted, citing the Old Testament scriptures (Genesis 1:27; 2:24) as support (Matthew 19:3-6). The Pharisees then questioned him further: “Why then did Moses command that a certificate of divorce be given so that a wife could be dismissed?” (Matthew 19:7). In response, Jesus stated: “Whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery.” While Jesus insists that divorce is never permissible, he acknowledges sexual immorality as an exception. Does this create a contradiction in his statements?
In the Synoptic Gospels, Jesus has clearly stated that divorce is never permissible (Matthew 19:3-6; Mark 10:1-12; Luke 16:18). When asked about Moses allowing divorce for the Israelites (Deuteronomy 24:1-4), Jesus provided a noteworthy response: “Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because of the hardness of your hearts; but it was not so from the beginning” (Matthew 19:8). This was a permission, not a command. “The Lord, the God of Israel, hates divorce” (Malachi 2:16). The reason is that through marriage, man and woman become one, as per God’s will; humanity does not have the right to undo this divine union.
The only reason Jesus permits divorce is sexual immorality. The Greek word used for sexual immorality is ‘Porneia,’ which is a general term referring to various forms of sexual misconduct. For adultery, the Greek word ‘Moicheia’ is used. In Matthew 19:9 and 5:32, the term ‘Porneia’ is used, not ‘Moicheia.’ Given the divine law that marriage should never be dissolved for any reason, it cannot be concluded that Jesus allowed divorce on the grounds of adultery.
How should one interpret the term sexual immorality as mentioned in Matthew 19:9 and 5:32? St. Paul’s first letter to the Corinthians (5:1-2) sheds light on this. “It is actually reported that there is sexual immorality among you, and of a kind that does not even occur among the Gentiles” (1 Corinthians 5:1a). The Malayalam translation of sexual immorality comes from the Greek word ‘Porneia.’ Paul further clarifies the specific nature of this immoral relationship in the second part of the verse: “A man has his father’s wife!” (1 Corinthians 5:1b). By father’s wife, the reference is not to one’s mother but to one of the father’s wives. Such relationships were strictly forbidden and considered legally invalid among the Israelites. “Do not uncover the nakedness of your father’s wife; it is your father’s nakedness” (Leviticus 18:8). The Book of Leviticus lists many such restricted relationships (18:6-23). The immorality mentioned in 1 Corinthians 5:1 refers to an unlawful and illegitimate relationship. Therefore, cohabitation between such individuals is not considered a valid marriage, nor can their separation be seen as a divorce in legal or spiritual terms.
In light of 1 Corinthians 5:1, Jesus’ statement in Matthew 19:9 and 5:32 refers to cohabitation with individuals in restricted relationships. The Book of Leviticus lists various categories of individuals who fall under such restrictions (18:6-23). Since relationships with such individuals are legally invalid, they cannot be considered marriages, nor can their separation be regarded as divorce. Therefore, Jesus’ command “that marriage should never be dissolved” does not contradict his statement in Matthew 19:9 and 5:32.
Rev. Dr. Antony Vadakkekara VC
